A 52-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 3-day history of an asymptomatic rash limited to his legs. He has no history of preceding infection. In addition to the simvastatin, metformin, and amlodipine he has been taking, he started taking hydrochlorothiazide 3 weeks before this eruption. A physical examination reveals nonblanching, palpable purpura on his legs only.
The most likely diagnosis is
-
Drug-induced leukocytoclastic vasculitis
-
Stasis dermatitis
-
Contact dermatitis
-
Pigmented purpuric dermatosis
Answer on page 750
- Copyright© the College of Family Physicians of Canada